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Oracle IT Architecture BPM 2013 Essentials Sample Questions:

1. What is the purpose of the BPM Governance Framework?

A) To ensure effectivemanagement of BDM strategic goals and empowerment of the program management office
B) To reduce risk, maintain business alignment, and measure the business value of BPM investments, while providing support to address these challenges and increase the effectiveness of BPM adoption
C) To calculate the benefit of BPM adoption and evaluate effectiveness against expected benefits
D) To engine that regulatory and corporate policies are fully enforced

2. During the gap analysis phase of the BPM roadmap process several outlier capabilities were identified. Which two actions shouldbe performed for outlier capabilities?

A) If a capability has a low maturity score and a high Adoption score, then the capability should be addressed early in the roadmap because it has widespread negative impacts.
B) If a capability has a high maturity score but a low adoption score, then the capability should be addressed early in the roadmap because It has widespread negative impacts.
C) If a capability has a low maturity score and a high adoption score, then the approach used for that capability should be more broadly applied across the organization.
D) If a capability has nearly equal maturity and adoption scores, then the maturity for the capability should the addressed early in the roadmap to deliver quick positive results.
E) If a capability has a high maturity score but a low adoption score, then the approach used for that capability should be more broadly applied across the organization.

3. WhenaCompanyis organized in vertical silos o' business functions, funding for governance, a horizontal activity, is difficult to organize.What governance best practice is recommended as a suitable funding model?

A) Governance requires an executive- level mandate and as such,Justifies a corporate funded governance body.
B) By collecting governance funding in the form of a tax on the use of IT resources, funding comes from the budgets of all organizational units that will ultimately benefit and all contributors become motivated to use the facilities provided.
C) By engaging an independent, external provider for governance, funded from the central IT budget, the organization avoids the problem of departments setting up disparate governance bodies.
D) Separate business units should be encouraged to set up their own governance groups that are coordinated through the adoption of a single set of policies, principles, procedures, tools, and infrastructure. This is known as federated governance.

4. What is meant by "round-tripping in the zero-code environment" of the Business Process Management System in the process lifecycle?

A) The process execution engine Interacts with the layers of the architecture spanning business rules, technical orchestrations, human workflow, system and apps integration, and back again to complete each process step
B) The exchange ofprocess models from business specialist to ITengineer to execution system and back again, while at each step refining details of their respective concerns and/or providing enhanced information
C) The execution of the business process passes through each distinct application to complete .in end-to-end cycle without executing code of its own
D) The execution of a complete cycle of a business process without involving a single line of code

5. A corporation established strategy, architecture, standards, metrics,and investment models early onbut these are not widely adopted. How can Oracle's approach to BPM governance help in this situation?

A) It uses vitality governance to ensure the upkeep, relevance, arid adoption of core governance assets.
B) It places outdated governance assetsintothe 8PM Governance Continuous improvement loop to ensure that they are current and effective.
C) It uses operational governance to ensure the upkeep, relevance, and adoption of core governance assets.
D) It identifies, takes ownership, and replaces outdated andirrelevantassets to ensure effective compliance across the organization.

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